So, I know that you can resolve a chord progression by doing either a plagal cadence or perfect cadence. I was just messing around with a chord progression that went like G-D-A and I was wondering how I should look at it because I would say it’s in G lydian and in that case the harmony in roman numerals would be I-V-II but when you go back to the G from the A it sounds like closure(or resolving however you want to call it) Is this because G is a substitution of Em7 and A-Em7 would be a plagal cadence giving it a sense of closure or is the plagal cadence the D-A part which gives it a sense of closure?
